Can we deduce that the equation $f(x)=0$ has finite number of solutions in
the interval $(-‡,2)$?
Let us consider an equation $f(x)=0$ where $f$ is a real analytic
function. Assume that this equation has still a finite number of solutions
in any interval of the form $(y,2)$ where the number $y<2$ is located in
an infinite discrete set. Can we deduce that the equation $f(x)=0$ has
finite number of solutions in the interval $(-‡,2)$
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